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Allegedly. And if you read anything about the case its clearly in a very gray area.

Their actions are what you'd expect any firm to do to hedge their exposure. Its just that they were so large and the Indian stock market is relatively so small that they're hedging moved the market.

So the question is, was their market moving hedging actual market manipulation or was it just the same thing every other quant firm would do in the same situation to hedge out their option exposure?

https://libgen.li/edition.php?id=151275376

Here's a decent description of the issue.



> Their actions are what you'd expect any firm to do to hedge their exposure

No, their actions were the opposite.

They were pushing the price in the same direction as their derivatives holding. A hedge would push it in the opposite direction. (Eg: If you're long calls, you would hedge by selling the underlying, bringing its price down.)


Your comment doesn't make a whole lot of sense to me. By definition, doesn't hedging the market ALWAYS move the market? The indian market was so small the movement was perceptible, but hedging the US market would also move the market, albeit imperceptibly, right?


If you want to go down that path, buying a single share of literally anything will also move the market, albeit usually imperceptibly.


Thank you, this makes much more sense and it's a classic issue Matt Levine's readers will be familiar with.

Allegedly being investigated is also quite far from "been manipulating markets", I appreciate the clarification.




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