Aren't there some relevant details missing from this kind of analysis? Banks failing just means that the value of the banks assets fall below the value of their deposits, right? In which case the degree to which that happens seems to be highly relevant to this kind of comparison. E.g. the value of assets falling to 50% of deposits in bank failures in financial crisis A vs 90% in financial crisis B

In most of these cases the fall is to 99% of the value, because that's the point at which they have to cease trading.

At the very least that’s missing Fannie, Freddie, Bear, Merrill, Lehman, TARP and arguably AIG for another 1.2T+, granted a lot of this was eventually repaid as the FDIC will be as well.

None of those are consumer banks. Every dataset has to make scope decisions.

If we're comparing the Great Recession which was not caused by or relatively impacted consumer banks it seems arbitrary to limit the dataset to them.

That on 2022 dollars?