> History has shown time and again that massive inequality is a huge barrier to maximizing the productivity of all of a society's members.
Has it? Restricting what opportunities individual people are permitted to follow would I assume both reduce productivity and increase inequality, but that doesn't have the inequality being the cause of the lower than theoretically possible productivity.
Has it? Restricting what opportunities individual people are permitted to follow would I assume both reduce productivity and increase inequality, but that doesn't have the inequality being the cause of the lower than theoretically possible productivity.