Is the argument "Because time-theft exists and operates in the opposite direction to wage theft they cancels each other out"? If I'm misinterpreting it, then please correct me.

Well the parent comment reads to me like working after hours without extra pay is getting work without pay i.e. wage theft. My question is asking whether pay without work is also wage theft?

Assume it is.

Workers: We don't want to do labor unless it is tied to more pay.

Employer: No, we want you to do more work with the same pay.

Workers: Ok, we will do less work then.

Employer: Ok, work longer hours then.

It sounds a lot like what we already have right now. There are better questions than "what about time-theft?"